Good mornin to you my friend.

This mornin during my daily bible reading, and I encountered this familiar marital situation in scripture:

2 Chronicles 13.21

“But Abijah waxed mighty, and married fourteen wives, and begat twenty and two sons, and sixteen daughters.”

(Polygamy among God’s children is very abundant throughout scripture; it’s not God’s will, but it’s common nonetheless, just as divorce is not God’s will).

So when I read passages like “the husband of one wife” (as in 1 Timothy 3.2), it seems to me that the problem of polygamy is what’s being dealt with, (rather than barring a man from being a bishop if he’s remarried).

Here’s why I believe that, (although I don’t know that I’m right about this, I may be wrong):

1. If a man has a wayward past prior to his salvation (and who doesn’t), such as divorce, and he is forbidden to be a bishop on that basis, then his sins are being held against him that God has forgiven and put away. Making him (in practice) a second-class citizen in the kingdom of God based on stains that God has cleansed.

2. Conversely, I’ve known false-teacher pastors who’ve never been divorced who wouldn’t recognize grace even if you bashed them over the head with it.

3. Moreover, a man who’s married to multiple women simultaneously is going to have a very chaotic personal life. his affections are going to be pulled in multiple directions, (with excessive drama and strife).

4. Consider also please that a man could have been convicted of the most sickening of sins that you could think of: Like being a child molester, or a Satanist who raped, murdered, and ate his victims…who can get saved and then be a bishop, (so long as divorce wasn’t among his past sins)?  But a man who has a divorce in his past prior to his salvation can not be a bishop, (entirely on those grounds)?               By the way, I believe that that former evil person (mentioned above) can get saved and be a bishop. I believe in regeneration by God; I really believe that God makes someone a new creature (2 Corinthians 5.17) when Christ has been formed in them, (Galatians 4.19).

5. And finally, (I believe that) the forbidding of polygamy better-fits the grammar in 1 Timothy 3.2. Because a married, (or a divorced & remarried) man is the husband of one wife, while a polygamist is not the husband of one wife, (and thus the polygamist would be disqualified from being a bishop).

So like I said, I may be wrong in my analysis of this topic, and if you disagree with me then that’s fine with me.

Therefore feel free to share with me whatever enlightenment you feel led to share, I’ll happily listen to you.

All glory to the risen Lord Jesus Christ! And no glory to us whatsoever!

 

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